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CGT - and Selling investment property .

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James | 16 Apr 2013, 03:16 PM Agree 0

any help or input would be greatly appreciated, My situation is as follows.

Me and the wife purchased a proprerty in 2007, then in 2009 we moved out to my in-laws and we then put our PPOR up for rent and this has been recieiving income till this day.

However in 2011 we purchased a property which we have been living currently.

We have now decided to sell the house we bought in 2007.

My question is will this sale be exempt from CGT or is it only partially exept ?

And If i then buy another property in future does that mean the house i purchased in 2011 will have CGT attached to? because i technically have claimed a sale on PPOR already?

  • James | 16 Apr 2013, 04:27 PM Agree 0
    Adding this, will i be able to say that my first home was my PPOR, even though i am staying at a porperty that i already purchased..
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